INSEAD Admissions Test (IEAT)

Getting Started With IEAT Preparation

INSEAD’S Global Executive MBA (INSEAD GEMBA) programme is one of the top choices for executives looking to elevate their career to the top management level. The 14 to 17-month programme will take place in 3 locations – Europe (France), Asia (Singapore) and Middle East (Abu Dhabi).

The INSEAD Admissions Test (IEAT) is a required component to the program (alongside the GMAT/EA), which provides candidate with a chance to be up close and personal with the school’s admissions board.

Free IEAT Practice Test Registration

IEAT Format Overview

The IEAT consists of two modules and a 20-minute interview. The first module consists of a verbal segment and a quantitative segment. The second module consists of a case presentation which has a 30-minute preparation time and a 15-minute delivery time.

Module 1 - Quantitative & Verbal Assessment (MCQs)

Verbal Assessment

  • Section 1 – Communication Analysis
    (15 questions, 30 minutes total). Test for:
    • Contextual Understanding
    • Summary and Inference
    • Analysis of passages through the lens of gauging the main themes, relevant points and logical inferences
  • Section 2 – Critical Thinking
    (15 questions, 30 minutes total). Test for:

    • Logical Reasoning
    • Information Completeness
    • Managing the components of a logic problem to either deliver a definitive answer to a question or simply determine its solvability

Quantitative Assessment

  • Section 3 – Data Interpretation
    (15 questions, 30 minutes total). Test For:

    • Mathematical Caselets
    • Information Completeness
    • Data Significance testing through both standard mathematical logic questions, and multiple linked mini-case questions where arithmetic and algebra are tested in the context of a business scenario
  • Section 4 – Data Analysis
    (15 questions, 30 minutes total). Test For:

    • Problem Solving
    • Fluency and efficiency in use of business-relevant mathematics

Module 2 - Case Presentation

Case Presentation

Analysis and absorption of the challenges and opportunities facing a business. Presentation and discussion to adjudication panel of candidate’s analysis

  • Preparation: 30 minutes
  • Delivery: 15 minutes

Sample Questions

Below are some sample IEAT questions for each section – can you answer them all?

Section I: Communication Analysis (CA)

Directions: The following passages will be accompanied by relevant questions. After reading a passage, answer the corresponding questions based ONLY on information given or implied in the text.


Prior to merdeka (national independence) in 1957, Malaysia was a British colony known as Malaya. During the Japanese Occupation of Malaya from 1942-1945, some Malayans carried out attacks on the Japanese from hidden jungle strongholds. Many of these guerrillas were ethnic Chinese members of the Malayan Communist Party (MCP), which refused to accept the return of Malaya to British control in 1945. With jungle warfare skills honed fighting the Japanese, the MCP guerrillas did not hesitate to use force in support of their campaign against British rule—British officials and businessmen as well as local residents identified with British interests were targeted for assassination by bands of communist fighters. As a result, the colonial government declared a State of Emergency on 18 June 1948.

The MCP insurgents depended on supplies taken voluntarily or otherwise from ethnic Chinese villagers living near the fringes of the Malayan jungle. Although few villagers were communists, many of these poor farmers had grievances against the Malayan government, which had failed to fulfill an earlier pledge to provide an easier path to full Malayan citizenship for ethnic Chinese residents. Moreover, any villager who refused to hand over food or money to communist guerrillas was likely to be executed on the spot.

Under these circumstances, Malaya Director of Operations Sir Harold Briggs formulated a plan that became the cornerstone of British strategy for dealing with the Emergency. The Briggs Plan had two interrelated aims—to provide a better standard of living for rural Chinese Malayans and to cut off the MCP from its source of supplies. To achieve these aims, some 400,000 rural Chinese were forcibly relocated into 450 “New Villages” surrounded by barbed-wire and guarded by police personnel. Some New Villagers complained of confinement in what they viewed as a concentration camp. Others appreciated the improved amenities provided for New Village settlements—including schools, shops, and dispensaries. From a military standpoint, the Briggs Plan was a resounding success: as the influence of the MCP gradually waned, the Malaysian government finally declared an end to the Emergency on 31 July 1960.

Question 1:

Which of the following titles best summarizes the contents of the passage?

  • A) The Path to Merdeka: The Negotiations leading to Malaysian Independence
  • B) Permanent Revolution: The Military Strategy of the Malayan Communist Party
  • C) Battling for Hearts and Minds: The Rise and Fall of a Malayan Insurgency Movement
  • D) Communist Ideology in Malaya: Communism as Disguised Anti-Colonialism
  • E) A Malayan Experiment in Self-Government: The Political Organization of New Villages

Question 2:

According to the passage, all of the following are true of the Briggs Plan EXCEPT:

  • A) It aimed to improve the quality of life for Chinese Malayans living outside of urban areas.
  • B) It was an important part of the British response to the armed insurgency.
  • C) It attempted to prevent the MCP from gaining access to needed supplies.
  • D) It relocated only villagers who did not have legal title to their land.
  • E) It eventually achieved its military objectives.

Click To Reveal Answers

Question 1: C

The passage describes the origins of the Malayan Emergency and the strategy by which it was eventually overcome.

Question 2: D

The passage does not state that all New Villagers were former squatters who lacked legal title to the land on which they lived prior to relocation.

Section II: Critical Thinking (CT)

Directions: For the following question, do your best to analyze the argument/situation and pick the best possible answer choice.

Question 1:

The Australian Cricket Team will play exactly five test matches this summer. The opponent in each of these test matches will be Sri Lanka or the West Indies. Exactly one test match will be played in each of five cities: Adelaide, Brisbane, Hobart, Melbourne, and Sydney. The five test matches will be played in an order consistent with the following conditions:

  • Australia will play two consecutive test matches against the West Indies.
  • Australia’s opponent in the second test match will be Sri Lanka.
  • Australia will play only two test matches against the West Indies.
  • The third test match will be played in Brisbane.
  • The fourth test match will be played in Hobart.
  • The fifth test match will be played in Adelaide.

Given the above conditions, which one of the following must be true?

  • A) Australia’s opponent in Sydney will be the West Indies.
  • B) Australia’s opponent in Melbourne will be the West Indies.
  • C) Australia’s opponent in Hobart will be the West Indies.
  • D) Australia’s opponent in Brisbane will be Sri Lanka.
  • E) Australia’s opponent in Adelaide will be Sri Lanka.

Question 2:

The Feudalberg Charter of Civil Rights guarantees citizens’ freedom of expression. As a result, political expression (including both speech and symbolic conduct) is considered protected expression. However, seditious expression, defined as speech or conduct that aims to incite or is likely to cause the unlawful overthrow of the duly-elected government, has never been accorded any legal protection. Hence, despite the fact that burning the Feudalberg National Flag is symbolic conduct undertaken for political purposes, flag burning should not be classified as protected expression.

The conclusion above depends upon which of the following assumptions?

  • A) The punishment for sedition is no less severe than the punishment for espionage under the Criminal Code of Feudalberg.
  • B) An overthrow of the duly-elected government is unlikely to result from the burning of the Feudalberg National Flag by a few unpatriotic demonstrators.
  • C) Burning the Feudalberg National Flag is more akin to sedition than to any kind of protected political expression.
  • D) Those who burn the Feudalberg National Flag do not in fact intend to overthrow the duly- elected government.
  • E) The Feudalberg Charter of Civil Rights protects not only political expression but also non- political expression.

Click To Reveal Answers

Question 1: C

The opponent in the second match is Sri Lanka. Because Australia plays the West Indies exactly twice in consecutive matches, the first match cannot be against West Indies. So Australia will play the West Indies in either the third and fourth matches or the fourth and fifth matches. In either case, the opponent in the fourth match (played in Hobart) is the West Indies.

Question 2: C

The conclusion follows only if one assumes that flag burning is more like sedition than it is like forms of protected symbolic expression.

Section III: Data Interpretation (DI)

Directions: For the following questions, solve each question and indicate the best answer.

Table below gives the fuel consumed (in liters) and distance traveled (in kilometers) by four cars from 2001 to 2005.

Graph below gives the fuel efficiency (distance traveled per a liter of fuel consumed) of car D from 2001 to 2005.

Question 1:

Annual distance traveled by car C as a percentage of total annual distance traveled by the 4 cars is highest in which year?

  • A) 2001
  • B) 2002
  • C) 2003
  • D) 2004
  • E) 2005

Question 2:

By what percent did the total distance traveled by cars B and C change from 2002 to 2005?

  • A) 4.1 % decrease
  • B) 1.3 % decrease
  • C) 1.3 % increase
  • D) 4.1 % increase
  • E) 4.2 % increase

Click To Reveal Answers

Question 1: D

Question 2: A

Section IV: Data Analysis (DA)

Directions: For the following questions, solve each question and indicate the best answer.

Question 1:

A mixture of two candies, A and B, costs $11.625 per kilogram. Candy A costs $10.2 per kilogram while candy B costs $14 per kilogram. What is the ratio A:B in which the two candies are mixed?

  • A) 3:5
  • B) 5:3
  • C) 3:8
  • D) 5:8
  • E) 3:4

Question 2:

The ratio of the present age of Ricky to the present age of Michael is 5:4. Six years later, the ratio will be 6:5. What was the ratio 9 years ago?

  • A) 4:3
  • B) 3:2
  • C) 7:5
  • D) 5:3
  • E) 5:2

Click To Reveal Answers

Question 1: B

Question 2: C

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